A property is one of a pair. The woman takes out a mortgage on the property. The man is no credit information and income. The mortgage is solely in the name of the woman. They go into foreclosure. Then the debtor to collect the man, although he had no role in the mortgage market? The property is in both names, but the only loan in the name of the woman. Is this legal? The property is located in Tennessee and it is not a statement of community of property. What can man do to prevent this?

If I understand correctly, is the woman for 100% debt. If it were a community property state, both for when the debts incurred during marriage, in most cases.

The man can not be compelled to waive their rights to property. He can do nothing to prevent the loss of the house, if he can hold his own RWIN o lottery funding and pay the mortgage.

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